Monday, November 21, 2005

A question for my American readers.

Regarding the "Rempelhensible" behaviour (inside joke there :-) of one Jean Schmidt on the floor of the House of Representatives, we have the following:

Even Jean Schmidt eventually figured our her smear wasn’t worth defending and asked for her remarks to be struck from the record.

I'm intrigued by the fact that Schmidt couldn't simply withdraw her remarks, she had to ask that they be struck from the record. I'm sure I read somewhere that the House Speaker then asked for unanimous consent to allow this to happen.

Did that actually require unanimous consent from all House members? Because if I was a Dem and I was in a pissy mood that day, I might be tempted to disallow it just so those remarks were part of the permanent record.

Could a single dissenter have done that? And what would the consequences have been, since I recall that impugning the integrity or character of another House member is grounds for censure.

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